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Question 1: A 61-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hyperlipidemia and hypertension, presents with left hemiparesis without speech problems. The symptoms resolve while you evaluate the patient. Which of the following is correct?

 

  1. The patient should be discharged and no further testing is necessary

  2. The patient can be discharged with follow up in 3 months and treatment change is not necessary

  3. Observation before thrombolysis is indicated prior to symptom resolution, to determine if the patient has a TIA rather than a stroke

  4. MRI is not required since the symptoms have resolved

  5. The risk of stroke is highest in the period immediately following and soon after a TIA

 

Reference: Easton JD, Saver JL, Albers GW, et al. Definition and evaluation of transient ischemic attack. Stroke. 2009;40: 2276–2293.

NBME Neurology Shelf Exam Review Questions and Practice Tests

 

600 challenging Neurology Shelf Board Review Questions targeted for use during clerkship rotations. The questions have been specifically adapted for the Medical School Student Level. The questions have been hand selected from multiple leading textbooks from Wolters Kluwer.

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